NR601 Week 4 Midterm Exam (July 2026)
NR601 Week 4 Midterm Exam July-2026
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The NP is evaluating a patient with mixed hyperlipidemia, characterized by elevated fasting plasma levels of triglycerides (TGs) and LDL-C, along with reduced HDL-C levels. Which combination of interventions should be PRIORITIZED to reduce the patient’s risk of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD)?
A. Recommend a high-fat diet to normalize the patient’s lipid profile before prescribing medication
B. Focus solely on weight loss and then have the patient return to the clinic in 6 months to evaluate the lipid profile
C. ✔️ Implement lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise and consider pharmacologic interventions
D. Focus on managing the patient’s lipid profile through diet before addressing factors such as obesity and insulin resistance
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A 76-year-old patient presents with dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, and mild peripheral edema. On physical exam, the NP notes a laterally displaced point of maximal impulse and bibasilar crackles. Which of the following diagnostic findings is MOST consistent with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?
A. ✔️ Left ventricular ejection fraction <40%
B. Absence of S3 on cardiac auscultation
C. Elevated BNP with normal chamber size
D. Preserved left ventricular wall thickness on echocardiography
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According to the “Rule of Fourths”, which of the following BEST reflects the multifactorial contributors to functional decline in older adults?
A. ✔️ Functional decline is equally influenced by aging, disuse, disease, and iatrogenic factors, each contributing approximately one-quarter
B. The Rule of Fourths is primarily applied in epidemiology to describe disease prevalence, not functional status
C. While aging contributes to functional decline, it is the predominant factor in most older adults, outweighing the effects of disease or disuse
D. Functional loss in older adults is largely irreversible, with limited benefit from interventions targeting disuse or iatrogenic causes
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A 67-year-old male patient presents with persistent hypertension despite adherence to lifestyle modifications and compliance with antihypertensive monotherapy. His blood pressure remains above target on follow-up visits. What is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient?
A. Increase the dose of the current antihypertensive medication
B. ✔️ Add a second antihypertensive agent from a different class
C. Advise continued lifestyle modification and re-evaluate in 3 months
D. Refer for renal artery imaging to rule out secondary hypertension
The NP is evaluating several patients for resistant hypertension. Which patient is MOST likely to have resistant hypertension?
A. A 55-year-old patient with a blood pressure of 135/85 mmHg, taking three antihypertensive agents including a diuretic, with no identifiable causes of hypertension
B. ✅ A 65-year-old patient with a blood pressure of 145/90 mmHg, taking three antihypertensive agents, including a diuretic, with no identifiable causes of hypertension
C. A 59-year-old patient with blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg, taking two antihypertensive agents and a diuretic, with a history of obesity and excessive alcohol intake
D. A 70-year-old patient with blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg, taking four antihypertensive agents including a diuretic, with a history of primary aldosteronism……………………………………..please purchase this 100% accurate entire exam at $70 only
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